We find ourselves once again studying the Olivet Discourse. Last week we emphasized that there are three questions that must be answered as we approach this text. First, what is it that Jesus is addressing? Second, when did he imagine that these things were going to take place? Third, why does he use the type of language that he uses to describe these events?
Last week we answered the first two of these questions. Today we take up the third of these questions. If Jesus is intending to describe the destruction of Jerusalem in his discourse, why does He use the language that He uses? Much of His language seems far too extreme to refer to the destruction of Jerusalem. Indeed, it is this difficulty of the language that has led many commentators to insist that this discourse must still be future. Jesus’ words simply were not fulfilled in the destruction of Jerusalem. Or were they? Well that is the question before us today.